Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,891 questions • 9,636 answers • 967,493 learners
Clever stuff happening!
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,891 questions • 9,636 answers • 967,493 learners
A quiz question asks “vas a venir al cine mañana?”. In English it seems more common to say “are you going to go the movies tomorrow?” (or simply “are you going to the movies tomorrow?”) Any insights into this use of venir instead of ir?
Could we have used the infinitive for "... so I don't catch a cold" ? >> [rendering it as: "... para no coger un resfriado"].
My grammar book (by Butt and Benjamin) implies that 'por' might also be permissible here: i.e. "... por no coger un resfriado" - when it means "out of a wish or a desire to not catch a cold". Thus, I am wondering if [when a negative is involved] - "por no ... +infinitive" might actually be more common than "para no...+ infinitive" ?
Whi are no commas after rebanadas de pan duro 3 litros de caldo de carne etc when she is mentioning some of the ingredients. Some have commas but others like I mentioned do not?
have commas but not the
Is there a reason lucir (lucí), relucir, etc. don´t follow this rule?
In this quiz question (Elia no va a empezar el curso este año ________ va a tener un año sabático.) it seems to me that "pero" works just as well as "sino que". It doesn't seem to be a clear distinction between pero and sino que - it seems they both can be right. In one sense, you are adding a new idea/action of taking a sabbatical & should use pero, or you can think of the sabbatical as a substitution for beginning classes and use sino que. Why is sino que "correct" and pero ïncorrect"?
Can you provide some explanation on why “cada de los invitados” does not work? The quiz said that choice was incorrect when the correct answers were “cada uno de los invitados” and “cada invitado”. Gracias!
I have noticed that many questions are unanswered. Inma's responses were always very informative and greatly appreciated. So I was wondering if she will be back.
I was recently given this sentence:
Eugenia (entender) ______ que no podamos ir.
I got it correct and know the form of "entender" to be used, but I have a side question: Why is "podamos" in the subjunctive here? Why not the indicative?
Find your Spanish level for FREE
And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it
Find your Spanish level