Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola,

Why do we only conjugate -ar verbs in the preterito indefinido tense? What about -er and -ir verbs?

Also, is the preterito indefinido the same as the simple past tense?

Gracias

I don’t understand any of this at all, whatsoever. I’ve read it many, many times, including the comments. I know there is a difference between Spain Spanish and Latin American Spanish for has/have, but how can one differentiate between them? I am so lost. 

Hello, excellent lesson.  We know that "un/una" changes with gender.  Is this true of every number that ends with "un/una"?

Ex:

Vientiún estudiantes, veintiuna camas

Ciento un aguacates, ciento una botellas

Thanks.

Does querer que trigger the subjunctive if it's something you're wishing for yourself? 

Miguel tiene una novia y tu tienes

demasiada ( incorrect answer).  The correct answer is demasiadas

Miguel has one girlfriend and you have too many.

Una novia is singular so why is my answer demasiada wrong.

Hi, Inma

I translated the sentence "it would be very difficult to determine it." into "sería difícil de definirlo", and the correct answer removed the "de".

But when I translated the sentence "that will be hard to forget for tango lovers" into "que será difícil olvidar para los amantes del tango." the correct answer asked me to add a "de" after "difícil". 

I'm so confused now.

Saludos

Wenli

¿Por qué hay tilde en “ ésa”? 

“ésa sería mi abuela Carmen sin duda.”