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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,473 questions • 8,320 answers • 803,579 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,473 questions • 8,320 answers • 803,579 learners
Is there a reason that the verb tense is "buscaria" "reduciria" instead of "busca" "reduce" etc.?
As equivalent English examples, may I suggest:
To be opened with care.
To be applied...
rather than "Let it be opened..." etc?
I don't understand why Indefinido is used in the example; "Nos gustamos desde el primer momento." It has a definite starting point, but the sentence implies a continuing action. In this case could Imperfecto also be used correctly?
I would have said “en el sol”, not “al sol”
Hello, my question is regarding the use of “les” for “you” rather than “you all”. It makes sense to me to use “le” for the formal usted and then “les” for the formal “you all” but I was never taught to use “les” for a singular person. The example I am referring to is:
Señor López, le entrego el paquete.
Mr. Lopez, I am delivering the package to you.Hoy les pago la renta a ustedes.Today I'm paying you the rent.If you do use “le” or “les” for usted, then how do you know whether to use “le” or “les”?
Thank you,
Alicia
"le llamo" should be accepted, no?
Missing word - Don't pay for those for him, or Don't buy those for him, maybe?
Hola,
Why do we only conjugate -ar verbs in the preterito indefinido tense? What about -er and -ir verbs?
Also, is the preterito indefinido the same as the simple past tense?
Gracias
I don’t understand any of this at all, whatsoever. I’ve read it many, many times, including the comments. I know there is a difference between Spain Spanish and Latin American Spanish for has/have, but how can one differentiate between them? I am so lost.
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