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Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,631 questions • 9,000 answers • 874,226 learners
I have encountered real-life examples using both indicative and subjunctive with "una vez que..." and I'm just hoping to confirm or correct my understanding of how this works, please...? For examples, In an article about animals' senses of smell, in discussing the properties of volatile scent compounds I read "Una vez que se vaporiza, puede extenderse rápidamente por el aire" and in a tutorial for making tortillas mexicanas I found "Una vez que sepas cómo hacer tortillas..." I'm thinking that the first takes the indicative because its describing something factual understood to happen routinely, whereas the second takes the subjunctive because it's referring to something that from the writer's point of view hasn't happened yet or is more a hypothetical idea. Is this an accurate way to understand this or am I missing something...? If this is accurate, does it generally hold true with other, similar constructions like those discussed in this lesson? Thanks in advance, as I appreciate the help!
How does one use porcentajes with this?
Madre Mía ! ... It was probably more like a C2-level translation, not a C1? ... Anyway - thank you for encouraging us to tackle it !
I came across this question in the exercises.
Al profesor le gustaría que los niños ________ en voz alta
I selected the correct answer which was hablara.
However my first intuition was that the answer would be hable.
Hable wasn't one of the options however.
Would hable also be a potential correct answer for this question?
Thank you.
What is the indirect object pronoun for
A Javier ya a Sara ____
Is “a” missing after venir?
Saludos y gracias,
Shirley.
Why is Nos volvemos incorrect? Also, Would Nosotros volvemos be incorrect? The answer was simply Volvemos.
Hi Inma
Am I right to assume that these essentially translate into English as the same thing? Otherwise, could you explain any other differences in meaning that might exist?
1) Su avión ha debido retrasarse
2) Su avión debe haberse retrasado
AND that adding 'de' also makes no difference to the meaning (other than maybe 'strengthening' the assumption as we learned about here: Spanish modal verb Deber versus Deber de (obligation and assumption))?
Saludos
Couldn´t sueter be a suitable option for jersey?
Also, what is the principal for "de" after parar or dejar in the last sentence, "no parará de reír. " or is this something to memorize.
There’s too much new material in this lesson. I was only familiar with present subjunctive. To introduce two new subjunctive tenses here is a little much.
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