Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hi all!

I am trying to understand my Spanish textbook better. One of the vocab phrases is "faltar mucho tiempo para", which the book translates to mean "to have much time left" in english. Also they define "faltar poco tiempo" as meaning "to be short of time for". I thought faltar meant "to miss" so I am just confused on both of these translations and what faltar means in this context.

You should just ask a straight up question and not try to fool us. 

The sing-songy intonation that he gives to everything he reads is distracting and seems completely unrealistic. Nobody that I've ever heard talks like that, and it makes the listening exercises for which he's the reader less useful than they otherwise would be. The selections that he reads always start with a long pause, as if he needed a cue and didn't get it, and, I always cringe in anticipation of yet another tra-la-laaaaa reading to have to transcribe. Honestly, who picked this guy? And did they discover him reading for story hour in some Spanish library's kids' section? 

Hi,

My question: Why the "ser" verb is used in this sentence instead of "estar" Nuestras vidas pueden ser muy ocupadas con la pareja?

As I learned, we have to use estar in the sentences like these: Estoy ocupado, estás muy feliz, etc. I am confused a bit.

Despite the considerable damage inflicted is translated as:

A pesar del hecho de que se produjeron numerosos daños

Is it possible to say  'A pesar de que se produjeron numerosos daños'?

The first one sounds like a literal translation of 'despite the fact that' and very formal

If both are correct which is the most natural?

Gracias

isn't this first answer supposed to be "he gustado", since it is first person singular?  And isn't the second answer supposed to be he interesado for the same reason?

the article  támbien el clima, no?

HI, I see this construction sometimes and very few info on it online. But sometimes two pronouns with two verbs in a sentence are separated with one before the first conjugated verb and other attached to the following infinitive verb. In my book  for example - el pez numero catource-

1-- una vez la oí confesarle a Bernadette que tenía miedo de volver a equivocarse---

      Why not, -- se la oí confesar ?

2-- Mi abuelo no contesta. Se limita a mirarlo con hostilidad.--

    Why not: se lo limita a mirar?

What is this type of construction called?

Why separate them? Is this construction interchangeable with the traditional form of keeping pronouns together?

How common is it? I don't see it very often.

Thanks a lot