Spanish language Q&A Forum

This still makes no sense. Quoting from the lesson:

However, if the verb used is transitive, we usually use a direct object pronouns: me, te, lo, la, nos, os, los, las.

You say that pedir here is a transitive verb (perdón being the direct object), but then you go ahead and use an indirect object pronoun (les), exactly the opposite of what you said in the lesson.

Again quoting from the lesson:

There is a tendency to use an indirect pronouns me, te, le, nos, os, les when the verb is intransitive.

Then you give an example using an intransitive verb (arrodillarse) but you use a direct object pronoun (lo) in the example.

Lo hizo arrodillarse para declarar su amor.She made (forced) him get on his knees to declare his love.

This too is the opposite of what the lesson says.

Please explain.

I choose both correct answers and also trabajas.  What was it incorrect/

One of my lesson tests on Poder in the subjunctive asks, 

No dudo que vosotras ________ correr tan rápido como ellos.I have no doubt you can run as fast as them.(HINT: Conjugate "poder" in El Presente Subjuntivo.)

But why would you use the subjunctive here? No  dudo, I have no doubt, is an expression of certainty. Everywhere else that I have learned (my college course, spanishdict translation and google translation all use the indicative for No hay duda que..., and I figure this ought to be similar.

Oops.  The webpage cut out part of my response.  Right after I wrote

Hacer + Infinitive, the second paragraph contains;

and here I quoted from the lesson:

     .."There is a tendency to use indirect pronouns me,te,le,nos,os,les when the verb in intransitive. However, if the verb is transitive, we usually use direct object pronouns me,te,lo,la,nos,os,los,las.

That's where I asked if this is misprint, or is referring to common mistakes that we make?

  The remainder of my comment got posted correctly.  Hope that my points are more clear now.

From what I understand, statements of emotion almost always trigger the subjunctive. Are there exceptions for past events with cuando? "I was happy that he came" gives imperfect subjunctive whereas "I was happy when he came" gives preterite.

If this is a rule, is it more general than cuando?

Can dar be translated daría in the conditional? I have another source that says daría. Wondering if that is a Spain Spanish vs. South American Spanish?

Would this be correct? No sabia si tu querias que te despertara para ir a correr esta mañana. For I didn't know if you wanted me to wake you up go running this morning

Ps thanks. This was just the grammatical question that's been bugging me

If the construction starts with “si prefieres X....” isn’t “si preferías X...” also correct?

Re: Cuando (When) is followed by a verb in the subjunctive mood to express a future event still to happen.

In all the examples, the 2nd clause uses simple future or imperative. I get that these can be used, but does that mean that the present can't be used? Can we say: "Cuando vayas al mercado, compras fruta y verdura.

When you go to the market, buy fruit and vegetables.

"El viernes tocamos la guitarra," but "Mi padre come pescado LOS viernes".

I can't see the difference here?