Spanish language Q&A Forum

Hola Team Kwiziq,

Is it incorrect to place the No in a  No...nunca construction before the pronoun? I notice that one can say "No comes chocolate nunca" which made me believe that the no is always at the beginning of the sentence.

However "No nostotros te mentiríamos nunca" was incorrect and so was "No él estuvo intersesado".  I am guessing that no can be in front of a verb where the pronoun is implied (comes) but not in front of an  explicit subject pronoun (tú comes). Is this correct? Can you elaborate?

I am studying Latin Am Spanish and my Mexican teacher told me that preterite perfect is used to describe past experiences (even those finished in the past) AI confirms this : Visité México" is the simple past tense (preterite) and is used for actions that were completed in the past. If you're saying "I visited Mexico" as a specific event that happened, this is the way to go.

"He visitado México" is the present perfect tense and is used to talk about actions that were completed at some indefinite point in the past and have relevance to the present. If you're expressing that you've visited Mexico at some time in your life up to now, this is a good choice.

So it comes down to whether you're highlighting a specific past event (Visité) or a general experience up to now (He visitado). Got another language question? I’m here for it.

¿Qué te parece utilizar "podrías pedir" en lugar de "podrías preguntar" en la segunda pregunta de este ejercicio?

I think you have the A1 and B1 verb lists switched for this topic.  There are 28 verbs on the A1 list, including some less common ones like hervir, invertir, negar, and tremblar.  

But then there are only 15 basic verbs on the B1 list.  

My native language is Swedish. In all the above examples we would also use the infinitive. If this was a course for Swedish speaking people, this lesson would be unnecessary! Is Spanish grammar generally more similar to Swedish grammar than to English grammar? I don't know, but probably not.

This was just a reflection, not a question that I expect to be answered.

I am currently taking lessons from a tutor from Latin American who told me that in describing past experiences you would specifically use the past perfecto-He viajado en Mexica instead of the preterito. You contradict this. I wonder if this means you can actually use either and it's just a preference.

I was always told that he, has, ha were present perfect and hube, hubiste, hubo were preterite perfect. I find terminology differs from course to course - is there a standard reference that explains the conventions on naming tenses?

Darrell

1. I notice that in the headings of this subject, the "de" is placed in parentheses and that while most of the examples keep the "de", a couple don't, that is only "antes que" is used.  Can you explain why this is so? Is there a grammatical reason or rule?

2. Is there a subtle, nuanced difference between "Despues de que" and "Luego de que", or are they completely interchangeable regarding meaning and use?

3. Is the tense of the subjunctive verb in the subordinate clause (i.e., presente de subjuntivo vs. pretérito imperfecto subjuntivo) determined by the indicative tense in the main clause?