Spanish language Q&A Forum

If something is currently better now, but may change, why don't I use estar?  For example, el tiempo está mejor ahora.

In a writing exercise (a day outside), it told me to use es.

Why is the translation la llegada de la primavera? 

Why do I need a definite article in front of primavera?

Hello,

I have had a lot of difficulty distinguishing between choosing whether a verb is in the imperative or subjunctive in some complex sentences. 

Is there a clear way to determine this? 

For example, I'm not sure which of the 3 categories in the lesson, this sentence I came across and failed to identify as subjunctive, would fall under: 

"Al final será el consumidor quien pague la factura."

I would have used the present or imperative here more so. (Would it be possible?)

Thank you,

Nicole

This is a great example of the stuff that really ticks me off with Progressive! In two consecutive tests, this answer has been given as "me ha robado el bolso" and "me han robado el bolso"    ----  WHICH IS IT?! The fact that one version of the indirect pronoun is obvious, but how is one supposed to know which one you are asking for?!!

As you do the exercise it gives you answers by phrase or sentence. However when you get the fufll script at the end the word choices do NOT match the answers that were given earlier in the exercise. 

This grading of this question appears to be an error on the part of Progress. Conditional Perfect is the answer specified, which is "no habríamos muerto" and is the answer that I provided  The answer from Progress is given as "no hubiéramos muerto" and is Preterito Plumamperfecto Subjuntivo, not Condicional Perfecto. 

There is a lot of discussion on the internet about whether “him” and “her” are direct objects of conocer that should use lo and la.

1. In your "hint", you told us to "... use a pronominal verb for 'take advantage' " -

- but despite that^, in order to get a correct answer we were supposed to write: "Aprovecha la ruptura para conocerte más a ti misma" - [i.e., with 'aprovecha', a non-pronominal verb?]

("Aprovecha la ruptura ..." is of course quite consistent with the guidelines given in your lesson at Spanish verb Aprovechar vs Aprovecharse (pronominal verbs) [number 7478] ... so it is only your 'hint' which needs to be modified, not your text).

-.-.-.-.-

2. In your sentence: "... ya que ambos estábais sumergidos en una relación tóxica", there should not be a tilde in 'estabais'?

Si él gana ellas pagar la cuenta pero si Rafa no gana?

I have some confusion (and frustration) around use of definite articles in Spanish generally. In this lesson, I noticed what appears to be an inconsistency with this rule.

A mí, se me da bien contar chistes.

My question is, why is it not, "A mí, se me da bien contar los chistes".

Also, my other question concerns highlight #5 and use of "a".

The first example notes: "Se me da bien el tenis". [I am good at tennis], then later there's the example, "A mí, se me da bien contar chistes" [I am good at telling jokes.].  My question is the subject of both examples is first person ("I"), so why wasn't the first example written as "A mí, se me da bien el tenis". ?

Thank you for a clear explanation of these two issues.

Regards,

Pati Ecuamiga