Spanish language Q&A Forum

why is this not accepted as correct when A mí me molesta.... is?

This example is wrong, no? Quizá Miguel no aprobara.

This is in the imperfect subjunctive. Shouldn't it be apruebe?

There was a lot of food at the party. (completed action in the past)

Había mucha comida en la fiesta.

There was a lot of food at the party. (action not completed in the past, descriptive)

Which of the options in the lesson plan on "Spanish verb sobrar: different menaings" does this answer fit into:

¿Te sobra algún bolígrafo o los has repartido todos?.

Hola Shui,

I'm a bit confused with the future "podrá". I would expected "podría" or "pudiera". Can you please explain? Is there a lesson about hypothetical clauses?

Muchas gracias

Ελισάβετ

Ah, me encantaba jugar este juego cuando era una niña!

Gracias por este ejercicio excelente Shui. :)

Hi, Shui, is there a difference between “este está compuesto por” and “este es compuesto por”? I would have expected the ser form in this context. From reverso.com I see both forms are quite common. Why would you choose the estar form in this case, and would the ser form be wrong? Thanks!

I have understood that in Spain, the -se conjugation was used more in writing and formal situations, and -ra was more conversational. Is that not correct?

Hola Inma, I have been trying to work out why both direct and indirect objects are present here. 

I can't find a reference for a pronominal form of pensar, but on doing the exercise a second time, I noticed that the lesson for the se aspectual was listed as being relevant. Poder isn't given as one of the verbs that typically can take this construction, but does this explain why the reflexive pronoun is being used here, making the verb poder more "intense / complete" as explained in the example of "irse" in the lesson; .... or is there another explanation altogether. Espero que puedas ayudarme. Saludos. John