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5,779 questions • 9,440 answers • 940,551 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,779 questions • 9,440 answers • 940,551 learners
HI
Can you send me advance lesson on all tocar uses
Thanks
Hola!
is it true that "vago" or "perezoso" can be used with both "ser" and "estar", depending on whether it's a permanent personality trait or just a current mood?
Gracias!
would you be able to sayles costía mucho adaptarse a esse pueblo tan pequenoLes costó mucho adaptarse a un pueblo tan pequeño.
saludjulie
I am in the middle of doing your writing exercise "Castile comes from 'Castle'" > https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/my-languages/spanish/exercises/take/667/6083595?page=6 ... and incorrectly used "¿Qué ... ?" to translate "What is its origin?" ... I have to confess that the difference between "¿Qué es ... ?" and "¿Cuál es ... ?" was something which I had not yet grasped properly !
I consulted my grammar book, which explains that "¿Qué es ... ?" really means "What kind of thing?", i.e., inquiring about the definition of something's nature.... > which is of course what you say in your reply [below] to R.Z., [Thank you Inma !] - and which is supplemented by other comments from Kwiziq students.
It might be worth including this distinction in the grammar-notes which accompany the above-mentioned writing exercise.
Probably better [in the English original] to say "If you ever travel to Bogotá ..." - [rather than "... traveled ..."].
I know that this construction (using cómo si + indicative to express indifference) is common in colloquial speech. My question: Is this a currently officially excepted grammatical construction by the RAE? I found one source that says that the RAE says that this construction is common but must be considered incorrect. But I am not sure if I’m looking at the most appropriate or most updated source.
Why "de donde *eres*" for informal but "de donde *es* usted" for formal?
What did you mean when you wrote the tip "The full set of six forms is used with the past participles of another verb to form another tense, El Futuro Perfecto, for example..."?
I'm a little confused on what you mean by that, so if you can please explain it to me or give an example, I would greatly appreciate it.
How do we know when to use recordar vs acordarse de? Is one used more than the other in some regions or for certain occasions/emotions?
E.g. Siempre nos acordaremos de ellos.
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