Spanish language Q&A Forum

I wonder if there is a discussion of the pronunciation of these two words. Depending on the speaker, they sound the same to me. I have noticed in some accents in the north, there's a slight "l" sound in the ll, and even my late great uncle (from the north of Spain) had explained to me that this is a thing, but also he explained this to me a long, long ago and I just want to know if I'm hearing things correctly or if my brain's making it up. ¡Gracias!

"Mis padres se animaron con la visita de mis sobrinos." I don't understand why this is animarse. They aren't cheering themselves up, they're being cheered up by the visit of mis sobrinos. 

Maybe this is covered in a lesson I haven't gotten to yet, but can you explain how "ni siquiera" is functioning in this sentence? 

Thanks! 

I'm a little confused as to why one use of hacer seems to actually be employing hacerse. The example I'm referring to is below:

Me hice construir un anexo al lado...

Why wasn't this written simply as "Hice contruir un anexo al lado..."?

Another way to ask my question concerns another example.

Hicieron pintar de nuevo ...

Why was this example not structured as Nos hicieron pintar de nuevo...?

Saludos,

Pati Ecuamiga

Hiya, 

It seems to me that you can use ito/ecito fairly interchangeably...can you explain whether there is a difference? I believe ecito is more common in Spain than Latin America? 

Thanks :) Nat

Why is está bien correct when  it is a permanent condition - shouldn't it be only es buena. 

Is this an acceptable construction for "let me know" or does it need to be "déjame que sepa"? 

In the third sentence, would it be correct to say:  "Mi mejor amiga se apunta rápidamente a estos programas."?  Does it take something away from the meaning by saying it the way I wrote it?

In the fourth sentence, would the sentence be correct if I eliminate "son las que"?

I'm not trying to take anything away from the "style" of the writing or from the grammatical importance of the use of these relative pronouns, but I just want to know if the use of these relative pronouns is more about a certain style of writing or if they are grammatically necessary.

Thank you.

Amy

Dying one's hair is something which maybe be done oneself or by professionals. Am I to understand that the construction of a sentence about hair dye is the same regardless of whether one does it to oneself or has it done by professionals? Are we left to infer which is the case based on how good the resultant hair looks? 

I suppose this is similar in English wherein someone might observe "you cut your hair" as readily as "you got a haircut" but with rare exceptions (thinking of my brother circa age 4) intend to imply even in the first case that you yourself cut your own hair. 

ln the present tense version of this lesson we learned that we could use the infinitive (sometimes) by dropping the "que". (The "sometimes" was not really explained, but I think one of the users may have clarified it in the comments.) Are we to infer from its omission in this lesson that we cannot similarly use the infinitive when the first clause is in the pretérito?