Spanish language Q&A Forum
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,726 questions • 9,227 answers • 909,328 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,726 questions • 9,227 answers • 909,328 learners
Hello, my question is regarding the use of “les” for “you” rather than “you all”. It makes sense to me to use “le” for the formal usted and then “les” for the formal “you all” but I was never taught to use “les” for a singular person. The example I am referring to is:
Señor López, le entrego el paquete.
Mr. Lopez, I am delivering the package to you.Hoy les pago la renta a ustedes.Today I'm paying you the rent.If you do use “le” or “les” for usted, then how do you know whether to use “le” or “les”?
Thank you,
Alicia
"le llamo" should be accepted, no?
Missing word - Don't pay for those for him, or Don't buy those for him, maybe?
Hola,
Why do we only conjugate -ar verbs in the preterito indefinido tense? What about -er and -ir verbs?
Also, is the preterito indefinido the same as the simple past tense?
Gracias
I don’t understand any of this at all, whatsoever. I’ve read it many, many times, including the comments. I know there is a difference between Spain Spanish and Latin American Spanish for has/have, but how can one differentiate between them? I am so lost.
Hello, excellent lesson. We know that "un/una" changes with gender. Is this true of every number that ends with "un/una"?
Ex:
Vientiún estudiantes, veintiuna camas
Ciento un aguacates, ciento una botellas
Thanks.
Does querer que trigger the subjunctive if it's something you're wishing for yourself?
Miguel tiene una novia y tu tienes
demasiada ( incorrect answer). The correct answer is demasiadas
Miguel has one girlfriend and you have too many.
Una novia is singular so why is my answer demasiada wrong.
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