How can this be a future idea?Bear in mind that sometimes it is difficult to know whether the speaker is using the subjunctive to convey a future idea or a shared information. Have a look again at this example:
Aunque esté nevando, voy a sacar al perro a pasear.
There are two possibilities here:
the speaker is thinking that it might snow later (but even so, nonetheless, he is taking the dog for a walk)
the speaker and the listener both know that it is snowing at that moment of speaking (but even so / nonethelesss, he is going to take the dog for a walk), so it is a background/shared information.
In this sentence, how can one say "aunque este nevando" and be speaking about the future? This seems like it would have to be an instance of shared information, right?
Could you please explain why ''menos'' cannot be accepted here? I went through the lesson above, but for some reason, I'm not seeing if there are sort of exceptions when only ''excepto'' can be accepted, and menos would be incorrect. Thank you in advance
the correct answer to what do you think? is ¿qué piensas? but can we write as "qué te pareces?"
and looking forward to your reply, should we include a preposition 'A'? ¡Espero a tu respuesta! or without a is then the correct one?
I´m having fluctuating percentages for topics that I´ve created a notebook for and was correct on for over 30 times in a row. The percentage goes up and down but never significantly improves, even after getting them correct 10 times in a row it will drop from 97% to 91%. Can the percentages consistently reflect progress?
The two topics in particular are:
A0: Using vivo en + [city/country/region] to say where you live in Spanish
A0: How to say I have / you have in Spanish (possession)
Él pudo irse de vacaciones
why we use 'irse' in this sentence? instead of 'ir'
It might be worth rewording the Hint given with "... one of the industries that benefited the most from this new technology" > "... una de las industrias más beneficiadas de esta nueva tecnología".
It reads: "The adjective "new" refers to another or a newly-acquired technology rather than its condition". We were referred to Position of adjectives in Spanish - [reference number 6982] and I thought your hint implied that 'nueva' was acting to differentiate the noun 'tecnología' [i.e., to distinguish it from others] - rather than to 'emphasise' it.
Bear in mind that sometimes it is difficult to know whether the speaker is using the subjunctive to convey a future idea or a shared information. Have a look again at this example:
Aunque esté nevando, voy a sacar al perro a pasear.
There are two possibilities here:
the speaker is thinking that it might snow later (but even so, nonetheless, he is taking the dog for a walk)
the speaker and the listener both know that it is snowing at that moment of speaking (but even so / nonethelesss, he is going to take the dog for a walk), so it is a background/shared information.
In this sentence, how can one say "aunque este nevando" and be speaking about the future? This seems like it would have to be an instance of shared information, right?
No hay duda de que este restaurante lo tiene todo para triunfar.
I don't understand the function of LO in this sentence. Can it be omitted?
Gracias
Hello,
I am reading a fairly reputable bilingual version of Sherlock Holmes. On one sentence it says 'Iba vestido discretamente con un traje de mezclilla de lana....'
The translation (and my own reading of the context) suggests that this means 'He was discretely dressed....'
But if that's the case why have they used 'iba'? Is that incorrect? The man was not 'going to do' anything. He just 'was'. My searching online and using Google translate suggests that only estar (or possibly ser) in the past tense are valid here, not ir.
Thanks!
Hi,
In many lessons and responses to questions, I have read that when deciding if you are to use imperfecto or indefinido, it is up to how the speaker thinks about the event. If the speaker thinks the event had a clear start and end, you should use indefinido, and if not you use imperfecto. Does this mean that it is entirely up to the speaker to decide which past tense is correct? I understand that there are situations where it is clear which is right and wrong, but I feel like in many cases it is a bit more ambiguous.
Would it be correct to use the word “solo” like this:
No me queda mucho dinero; solo tengo para dos cervezas más.
It’s just that we might say it this way in English.
Also in general can the word “solo” be used with clauses of limitation?
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