Spanish language Q&A Forum

Claude-3.5-Sonnet dice que

"They may want a higher salary"

puede traducirse como

"Quizás querrían un salario más alto".

El bot dice que el condicional da un matiz más tentativo o hipotético que el subjuntivo y suena más cortés o diplomático. ¿Qué opinas?

Forgive me. The lesson explains this very clearly, but I'm still having trouble wrapping my head around the idea that there is absolutely no difference in meaning at all between the use of el indicativo and el subjuntivo with quizá and tal vez. I had read elsewhere a lengthy discussion about how these two always triggered the subjunctive and a lo mejor always used the indicative. Most examples I've encountered seem to reflect this. I'm struggling to reconcile this seemingly conflicting information...

Hola, Inma,

In a previous reply to Remy, you gave the example:

Quizás Miguel no apruebe.

He may not pass (in the future, he hasn't done the exam yet)

Quizás Miguel no aprobara.

He may not have passed (he already did the exam and we doubt if he passed or not)

Is it possible to use the perfect here

Quizás Miguel no haya aprobado.

and if so, how would the meaning be different from the earlier two examples?

Thanks in advance for your help.

This example is wrong, no? Quizá Miguel no aprobara.

This is in the imperfect subjunctive. Shouldn't it be apruebe?

I just had this question

Tal vez vosotras ________ cansadas después de bailar.

This was a checkbox question with these options

estuvierais
estuvisteis
estáis
estaréis
estuvieseis

Based on the lesson on this page, I would expect both the indicative and subjunctive to be correct (estuvisteis, estuvierais, estuvieseis).

However, the question had a hint:

(HINT: Conjugate "estar" in El Imperfecto de Subjuntivo)

Based on this I left off the indicative and my responses (just estuvierais and estuvieseis) were scored as correct.

The result is that I'm left uncertain about using estuvisteis here, and about the limits of the applicability of the lesson on the page.

If estuvisteis is OK here, then I think the question should be revised to not have that hint, and to check for the three correct answers. That way students like me wouldn't be confused thinking "Well, in the lesson , it says you can use indicative or subjunctive with no change in meaning. But here, apparently the indicative is wrong, so that lesson can't be trusted. I wonder what the real pattern is. I guess I'll need to look elsewhere to find out."

On the other hand, if the indicative is wrong here, then I think this lesson, or some other lesson, should give some hint about why that is so, since I'm reading this lesson as saying that either the subjunctive or indicative is OK.

Thanks for your help!

I think this lesson should be in a C1 category as it is very subtle. I just cannot see the difference in the  meaning of the first two sentences,,,,estoy&esté. Maybe you could provide better examples or explanations on this point of grammar

I don't remember seeing this structure/ tense of haber + past participle in the previous lessons.

Quiza Miguel no haya aprobado.

Could you please point me in the right direction to find where this is taught?

Thank you.     

Nevermind, I found this a little later in the B1 section to conjugate haber in present subjunctive, then there is a link in that lesson for the present perfect subjunctive for haber.

Here in Puerto Rico, it was suggested to me that one had the flavor of "perhaps" and the other "maybe", but I always forget which is which. 

Is it interchangeable to say something like

Just as 'tal vez' and "quizás" are interchangeable, with no fast rules on them, is it the same for using quizá and quizás or is there some guide for when they can/can't be used?

also, is it impossible to use quizá/quizás/tal vez using future tenses? 
examples:

"Quizá iré a la biblioteca pasado mañana"
"Tal vez conocerás aquel varón cuando venga"
"Quizás recibiré una mejor evaluación cuando mejore mis debilidades en mi trabajo"