Forgive me. The lesson explains this very clearly, but I'm still having trouble wrapping my head around the idea that there is absolutely no difference in meaning at all between the use of el indicativo and el subjuntivo with quizá and tal vez. I had read elsewhere a lengthy discussion about how these two always triggered the subjunctive and a lo mejor always used the indicative. Most examples I've encountered seem to reflect this. I'm struggling to reconcile this seemingly conflicting information...
We personally don't think that there is a clear difference between using the indicative or the subjunctive with quizás/tal vez (not as much as other cases at least). As the uncertainty is always expressed with the adverb itself, that is what carries the doubt, more than using a specific mood.
There are certain situations where there is a preference to use one or the other, which is explained here for example, but these are tendencies and speculative ideas, however it's not a rule. The purpose of our B1 lesson on quizás/tal vez is to show that both tenses are possible and there is no clear nuance so you're safe with both.
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