Hello, i am confused by this paragraph below: it states that this rule is relevant when there are direct or indirect pronouns in a sentence with a conjugated verb that is followed by an infinitive or a present participle but then provides an example that has a gerund after the conjugated verb and no example with a present participle. Is this an error?
When there are direct and indirect object pronouns in a sentence with a conjugated verb that is followed by an infinitive or a present participle,
present particle or gerund?
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Pirani S.Kwiziq community member
present particle or gerund?
This question relates to:Spanish lesson "Position of Spanish direct and indirect object pronouns with infinitive/present participle and affirmative commands"
Asked 3 hours ago
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