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5,433 questions • 8,247 answers • 798,031 learners
Questions answered by our learning community with help from expert Spanish teachers
5,433 questions • 8,247 answers • 798,031 learners
Madre Mía ! ... It was probably more like a C2-level translation, not a C1? ... Anyway - thank you for encouraging us to tackle it !
I came across this question in the exercises.
Al profesor le gustaría que los niños ________ en voz alta
I selected the correct answer which was hablara.
However my first intuition was that the answer would be hable.
Hable wasn't one of the options however.
Would hable also be a potential correct answer for this question?
Thank you.
What is the indirect object pronoun for
A Javier ya a Sara ____
Is “a” missing after venir?
Saludos y gracias,
Shirley.
Why is Nos volvemos incorrect? Also, Would Nosotros volvemos be incorrect? The answer was simply Volvemos.
Hi Inma
Am I right to assume that these essentially translate into English as the same thing? Otherwise, could you explain any other differences in meaning that might exist?
1) Su avión ha debido retrasarse
2) Su avión debe haberse retrasado
AND that adding 'de' also makes no difference to the meaning (other than maybe 'strengthening' the assumption as we learned about here: Spanish modal verb Deber versus Deber de (obligation and assumption))?
Saludos
Couldn´t sueter be a suitable option for jersey?
Also, what is the principal for "de" after parar or dejar in the last sentence, "no parará de reír. " or is this something to memorize.
There’s too much new material in this lesson. I was only familiar with present subjunctive. To introduce two new subjunctive tenses here is a little much.
I was just watching "¿Quién mato a Sara?" (takes place in Mexico) where a security guard in a parking lot tells a character waiting in his car to meet with someone "Estamos por cerrar". The English subtitles render it as something like "We're about to close."
Would saying "estamos para cerrar" also make sense in this context? Would the meaning be different, and if so how? Is it a regional/dialect thing? Does the nuance have to do with the implication of intent, as was generalized in another post, or is it more complex...?
I'm confused by this pair of expressions... they seem like they want to be different and yet the meanings seem confusingly close... I know language isn't always logical, but I'm just trying to get a feel for it. Thank you in advance...
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