Ser vs estarI've just realised that this lesson needs more detail to cover ser and estar.
When talking about something earlier in the day, generally, something that uses estar will use imperfecto, not perfecto nor indefinido, breaking the rule completely! Whereas ser will follow the rule.
So if we ate something delicious this morning we'd say, "!Estaba rico!" not "he sido rico" nor "estuvo rico".
Estar by its nature expresses more transient states of being than ser and the imperfect tense matches this (at least, that's how it feels to me but as I'm not a native Spaniard, I look forward to hearing Kwiziq's native experts' views to expand or correct this for me!)
I've just realised that this lesson needs more detail to cover ser and estar.
When talking about something earlier in the day, generally, something that uses estar will use imperfecto, not perfecto nor indefinido, breaking the rule completely! Whereas ser will follow the rule.
So if we ate something delicious this morning we'd say, "!Estaba rico!" not "he sido rico" nor "estuvo rico".
Estar by its nature expresses more transient states of being than ser and the imperfect tense matches this (at least, that's how it feels to me but as I'm not a native Spaniard, I look forward to hearing Kwiziq's native experts' views to expand or correct this for me!)
Hola,
The example given is "No vimos nada desde nuestro asiento" and is translated as "We couldn't see anything from our seats." Should the phrase read "desde nuestros / nuestras asientos?
I had thought that with the noun 'mano' we shouldn't use the possessive pronoun/s?
Please could you advise me here?
Gracias
Clara
Hola,
In the introduction it states ...."all the other endings are the same as regular er verbs íste, ímos, ísteis."
Is this correct? Aren't the ending of regular er verbs iste, imos and isteis all without the accent?
Or am i missing something?
Thanks.
Buenas tardes Inma,
Which do you find is the more commonly used of the two forms? Is it down to personal choice as to whether one uses the regular or irregular form?
Gracias
Clara
One of the questions connected to this lesson is: No es posible que ________ en la montaña. (It is not possible that they got lost in the mountains.)
The correct answers are given as se perdieran and se perdiesen. But why can't it be se hayan perdido as well?
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