I think I understand, but I would appreciate some clarification on this lesson. The way I'm reading this, it seems that if the person or object being referred to is general, then you don't use the "lo/la/los/las" But if it refers to a specific person or object, then you must use them.
For example:
"Has llamado a un doctor?" "No, no he llamado."
but
"Has llamado al doctor / a su doctor?" "No, no lo he llamado."
or
"Tienes dinero para el concierto?" "Si, tengo."
but
"Tienes el dinero que ahorraste para el concierto? "Si, lo tengo."
Am I on the right track?
Clarifying if this is a "general person/item" vs. "specific person/item" issue
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Chris P.KwizIQ community member
Clarifying if this is a "general person/item" vs. "specific person/item" issue
This question relates to:Spanish lesson "Hay/tengo/quiero vs lo hay/lo tengo/lo quiero (presence/absence of the direct object pronoun)"
Asked 8 hours ago
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