Clarifying whether this lesson is for spoken or written SpanishI understand that dropping the ¨de¨ is something done sometimes in spoken Spanish in Mexico and elsewhere, but it would it be marked incorrect in written Spanish? It seems like there should be some discussion about how this differs from Castilian rules. ChatGPT says re Dropping the de
You may hear:
antes que
or
después que
especially in parts of Latin America.
For example:
Antes que llegues...
Después que terminó...
These forms occur in everyday speech in countries such as Mexico, parts of Central America, the Caribbean, Argentina, Uruguay, and elsewhere, though how common they are varies by region and speaker.
However:
They are considered regional rather than the neutral standard.
In formal writing, education, and when speaking to people from across the Spanish-speaking world, antes de que and después de que are the safer, more widely accepted choices.
If your goal is broadly natural, educated Spanish (which I know you've been working toward), I would recommend keeping the de.
I think kwziq should add questions at the end of each reading excercise so readers can understand what they did well and what they need to improve on
I have been studying spanish from books. now I have a good reading knowledge. Lawless has given me the opportunity to creat a "listining" ability. Now I can train my ears as well as my eyes!
Hola, why is con included in the above sentence ? Muchas gracias, Shirley.
Rosalía uses a mix of definite articles and possessive adjectives in "Reliquia". Is this artistic choice? Or a grammar point I'm missing?
Some of the lyrics:
"Yo que perdí mis manos en Jerez, y mis ojos en Roma
...
los heels en Milán, la sonrisa en U.K"
Are there certain countries (e.g. Costa Rica) in which "a" is not used for talking about certain parts of the day like morning, afternoon and evening but only por manana or en la manana would be used. Seethe example below?
A la mañana desayuno cereales.I have cereal for breakfast in the morning.
The lesson says: Notice how, sometimes despite using the singular "lo + adjective" (lo menos caro), we conjugate the verb in the plural form (son). This is because, being a neutral idea, it can refer to a group of things, i.e "The least expensive things..."
This wording is not clear to me. Do you mean to say that the verb is single or plural depending on the object of the sentence? For example:
Lo más impresionante del viaje fue la cantidad de museos interesantes.
"la cantidad" is single, so "fue" (single) is used - is that correct?
Lo menos caro de esta tienda son los accesorios.
And here, "los accesorios" is plural, hence "son" (plural) - correct?
I understand that dropping the ¨de¨ is something done sometimes in spoken Spanish in Mexico and elsewhere, but it would it be marked incorrect in written Spanish? It seems like there should be some discussion about how this differs from Castilian rules. ChatGPT says re Dropping the de
You may hear:
antes que
or
después que
especially in parts of Latin America.
For example:
Antes que llegues...
Después que terminó...
These forms occur in everyday speech in countries such as Mexico, parts of Central America, the Caribbean, Argentina, Uruguay, and elsewhere, though how common they are varies by region and speaker.
However:
They are considered regional rather than the neutral standard.
In formal writing, education, and when speaking to people from across the Spanish-speaking world, antes de que and después de que are the safer, more widely accepted choices.
If your goal is broadly natural, educated Spanish (which I know you've been working toward), I would recommend keeping the de.
What is the reason that "Me alegro DE que..." is constructed differently than "Me entristece que...."? Do other similar phrases tend to follow one of these two patterns?
None of the examples uses articles before times or months (or, indeed, anything). This leads the poor naive student (me) to believe that articles are not used in these situations. And then I get a bad result on the first quiz I take because, yes, apparently one may use articles. Sure, it's a valid way to learn, but it's unnecessary.
Hola!
I've been following this and could do with some expert assistance. I was looking at this line:
Note that conjunctions o/o bien can either present a person with a choice to make (either one thing/idea or another) or both options are seen as possible. There is a choice to make here:
Tiene que venir o tu padre o tu madre. Tu hermano no puede venir a la reunión.Either your father or your mother has to come. Your brother cannot come to the meeting.My question is, is there something implying exclusivity - that it's the father or the mother, but not both? I would assume in English that it could be vague still - it might be the case that there's only room for one person, or it could be that one or both parents come, but a brother isn't suitable.
Thank you so much!
Ciaran
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