Is there a reason why "mande" is preceded by "que." It appears to translate as "Anyone who wants to apply for this job, that sends his CV to the address ....... etc."

Is the "que" obligatory to trigger the subjunctive? In that case does it translate as "that he / she send?"

Thanks. John

Asked 7 years ago

Like0Answer2

Doug B.C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Continuing with the previous question-

The lesson says:

We always use the singular form of verb gustar when followed by actions!

For example: Me gustan bailar y cantar.

---

I think I understand the answer, but the example seems confusing since in this case gustar is being used with multiple verbs

Asked 7 years ago

Like0Answer8

Johan V.C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Should the "la" not be replaced with "mi"?

Asked 7 years ago

Like0Answer1

Emanuel B.C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

No creo que vaya al cine después. - is it possible to say - No creo que voy al cine después? Why is subjunctive necessary when the person is the same?

Asked 7 years ago

Like0Answer1

Karen S.C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Nunca with auxiliary verb tenses

There doesn’t seem to be an example or text relating to placement in a tense with auxiliary ‘ha’ etc. I gather from the quiz question that you cannot interpose nunca as in ‘no he nunca visto eso’. As this is the natural order in English (I have never seen that) it would be good to have some explicit mention in the text and examples.

Asked 7 years ago

Like1Answer1

Karen S.C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

use of the plural se tardan

I’m not quite clear about the use of the ‘se tardan’ plural. The examples given are with a plural number of hours/minutes. Are the time units the ‘subject’ of the passive? In other words if the time was one hour or one minute, could you still use the plural verb? Or is there some other rule that indicates singular or plural? Or are they just equivalent?

Asked 7 years ago

Like1Answer1

Nicole P.B1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Is there a translation for this exercise. I was especially wondering about the line: "Luego puedo ir a la tienda para ver cómo me sienta."

Asked 7 years ago

Like0Answer3

GruffKwiziq Co-founder, CEO

Ser vs estar

I've just realised that this lesson needs more detail to cover ser and estar.

When talking about something earlier in the day, generally, something that uses estar will use imperfecto, not perfecto nor indefinido, breaking the rule completely! Whereas ser will follow the rule.

So if we ate something delicious this morning we'd say, "!Estaba rico!" not "he sido rico" nor "estuvo rico".

Estar by its nature expresses more transient states of being than ser and the imperfect tense matches this (at least, that's how it feels to me but as I'm not a native Spaniard, I look forward to hearing Kwiziq's native experts' views to expand or correct this for me!)

Asked 7 years ago

Like1Answer3

Find your Spanish level for FREE

And get your personalised Study Plan to improve it

Find your Spanish level