Using double pronouns with El Imperativo

*acentuación

*tengo

Hola Deepanshi

This word "compráoslos" if formed by "comprad -os -los", so it is the imperative for you plural, followed by a reflexive pronoun for you plural, and another direct object pronoun "them". You cannot see the -d from the verb because when you are using an imperative with pronoun "os", we drop the -d and instead of comprados, we say compraos. 

Now, when you have two strong vowels together, they belong to separate syllables, so in this word we have 4 syllables all together: com-pra-os-los

The intonation of this word keeps the original intonation from the conjugated verb with no pronouns: comprad, therefore we need to give an accent to that -a as it is the third syllable from the back. This would be, as per accentuation rules, "una palábra esdrújula".

We are still working on content related to accentuation and lessons on it, but you can have a look here where you will find some useful information. 

Palabras agudas

Palabras graves

Palabras esdrújulas

Palabras sobresdrújulas

I hope this helps you.

Saludos

Inma

Hola Korbel

"Se" here is referring to "to/for him", "to/for her" or "to/for them". It is the indirect object pronoun that turns into "se" when le/les precedes a direct object pronoun lo/la/los/las. This is the case here with Píde-se-las.

There are three possible answers because that "se" could be referring to any of those three pronouns (le=to him, le=to her or les=to them).

If we give nouns to those pronouns, it'll be easier to see.

Let's take these sentences:

Order some beers for him - Pide cervezas para él. 

Pide-le-las = Pídeselas

Order some beers for her - Pide cervezas para ella.

Pide-le-las = Pídeselas

Order some beers for them - Pide cervezas para ellos/ellas.

Pide-les-las = Pídeselas

The three forms coincide as le/les turn into "se".

"Las" never changes as it is always referring to "cervezas" (las).

I hope this clarifies your doubt.

Saludos

Inma

Thanks Inma. Explanantion is clear. If only I could use it in practice without getting confused in the process.

Saludos.

K

Soy nativa de España. Es pídeselas (a ellos) con tilde.

De nada.

Hola Allison

The correct translation for "Order them for yourself" would be either:

"Pídetelas" (informal for tú) or "Pídaselas" (formal for usted)

In the example inside the lesson, the se in "pídeselas" refers to "for/to them".

I hope this clarified your doubt.

Gracias

Inma

Hi Gary

The form of the imperative for tú coincides (except for the irregular imperatives) with the 3rd person singular (él, ella) of the present indicative. I imagine you refer to the sentences in the examples that look like a present indicative, e.g "Prepara la carne para él" (Prepare the meat for him [command]). This could also mean "He/she prepares the meat for him" [Affirmative sentence in the present tense indicative]. They coincide in the form.

I hope this clarifies your doubt. If you refer to something different please let us know.

Gracias

Inma

Hi Imna,

Sorry for the confusion, the message function of the site is broken and the message I wrote got lost, so you can only see the subject. I'm trying again now...

My question is that a test marked my translation of "Give it to me, please" as "Me lo das, por favor" as incorrect and said I should have used "Dámelo, por favor". However, I believed that using the indicative instead of the imperative for a command was correct and relatively common. Is this not correct? This was in a general test, not one specific to "Using double pronouns with El imperativo".

Gary

Hi, I don’t think this is in the lesson yet, is it?  I was going to ask the same thing and then found this!  Thanks!