Hola Deepanshi

This word "compráoslos" if formed by "comprad -os -los", so it is the imperative for you plural, followed by a reflexive pronoun for you plural, and another direct object pronoun "them". You cannot see the -d from the verb because when you are using an imperative with pronoun "os", we drop the -d and instead of comprados, we say compraos. 

Now, when you have two strong vowels together, they belong to separate syllables, so in this word we have 4 syllables all together: com-pra-os-los

The intonation of this word keeps the original intonation from the conjugated verb with no pronouns: comprad, therefore we need to give an accent to that -a as it is the third syllable from the back. This would be, as per accentuation rules, "una palábra esdrújula".

We are still working on content related to accentuation and lessons on it, but you can have a look here where you will find some useful information. 

Palabras agudas

Palabras graves

Palabras esdrújulas

Palabras sobresdrújulas

I hope this helps you.

Saludos

Inma

 

Hola Korbel

"Se" here is referring to "to/for him", "to/for her" or "to/for them". It is the indirect object pronoun that turns into "se" when le/les precedes a direct object pronoun lo/la/los/las. This is the case here with Píde-se-las.

There are three possible answers because that "se" could be referring to any of those three pronouns (le=to him, le=to her or les=to them).

If we give nouns to those pronouns, it'll be easier to see.

Let's take these sentences:

Order some beers for him - Pide cervezas para él. 

Pide-le-las = Pídeselas

Order some beers for her - Pide cervezas para ella.

Pide-le-las = Pídeselas

Order some beers for them - Pide cervezas para ellos/ellas.

Pide-les-las = Pídeselas

The three forms coincide as le/les turn into "se".

"Las" never changes as it is always referring to "cervezas" (las).

I hope this clarifies your doubt.

Saludos

Inma

Hola Allison

The correct translation for "Order them for yourself" would be either:

"Pídetelas" (informal for tú) or "Pídaselas" (formal for usted)

In the example inside the lesson, the se in "pídeselas" refers to "for/to them".

I hope this clarified your doubt.

Gracias

Inma

Hi Gary

The form of the imperative for tú coincides (except for the irregular imperatives) with the 3rd person singular (él, ella) of the present indicative. I imagine you refer to the sentences in the examples that look like a present indicative, e.g "Prepara la carne para él" (Prepare the meat for him [command]). This could also mean "He/she prepares the meat for him" [Affirmative sentence in the present tense indicative]. They coincide in the form.

I hope this clarifies your doubt. If you refer to something different please let us know.

Gracias

Inma

Hola Gail, thanks for your question and sorry about our delay. We need to add that exceptional case to our lesson. The rule says that when using a command in the "vosotros" form ending by -d with pronouns starting by a vowel, we need to remove this -d from the imperative form. This is done mainly due to phonetical reasons, because it is easier and more confortable to pronounce two vowels together in this case. Thanks again for contacting us and we will fix this in the lesson as soon as we can. Silvia