"yo haría lo imposible por ti" (lo is after hacer) but "ellos lo harían sin problema" (lo is before hacer). Why does lo move around? Does it matter?

"yo haría lo imposible por ti" (lo is after hacer) but "ellos lo harían sin problema" (lo is before hacer). Why does lo move around? Does it matter?

Asked 8 months ago
I think the answer is that these are different uses of "lo". In "lo imposible" it's acting as a neutral article ("the"), but in the second example it's an object pronoun ("it"). Object pronouns have to be placed before a conjugated verb. 
that's a nice crear explanation. Thank you!!
InmaKwiziq language super star

Exactly as Alan says!

Gracias Alan,

Inma

"yo haría lo imposible por ti" (lo is after hacer) but "ellos lo harían sin problema" (lo is before hacer). Why does lo move around? Does it matter?

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