Accent placement 2

William C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Accent placement 2

Hola


Answer given was "compráoslos". Should it not be "cómpraoslos" ? Similar to "Prepáratelas" and "Cómpratelas" . 

Asked 8 months ago
AlanC1 Kwiziq Q&A super contributor

I think this has been answered before:

https://progress.lawlessspanish.com/questions/view/accentuacion-dudas

In short, no, because comprad has the accent on the second syllable, while compra has the accent on the first syllable.

William C1Kwiziq Q&A regular contributor

Thanks Alan

I now understand the reason.

William

InmaKwiziq team member

Hola William,

When we have a verb in the imperative with pronouns attached to it, the stress is still in the original stress from the verb conjugated without the pronouns. I mean, for example:

Prepáratelas:

prepara - te - las

The stress on the imperative prepara is on the second "a": pre - pa - ra. So when linked to the pronouns, the stress is still on that "a". The same would apply to compra - te - las.

With compráoslos, this is how it goes:

comprad: imperative (with the stress on the "a", com-prad)

os = pronoun

los = pronoun

In this case, the -d from the imperative for "vosotros" dissappears when having the pronoun "os" attached. But the intonation is still on that "a": com - pra - os - los.

I hope this clarified it.

Saludos

Inma

Accent placement 2

Hola


Answer given was "compráoslos". Should it not be "cómpraoslos" ? Similar to "Prepáratelas" and "Cómpratelas" . 

Sign in to submit your answer

Don't have an account yet? Join today

Ask a question

Find your Spanish level for FREE

Test your Spanish to the CEFR standard

Find your Spanish level
Thinking...