Como si + imperfect subjunctive VS como si + pluperfect subjunctive

Question

In my notes, I've differentiated these two as follows: if the verbs in the main clause and in the "como si" clause are happening simultaneously -- that is, are occurring in the same moment in time -- then the verb in the "como si" clause should be in the imperfect tense. But if the verb in the "como si" clause refers to an action that occurred prior to the action of the main clause, then the verb in the "como si" clause should be in the pluperfect subjunctive. Can you confirm that my inference is correct?

Answer

Hola Christian
Yes, we can say that your supposition is fair but I wouldn't take it as a 10 out of 10 rule. Generally, the "more perfect" the tense goes, the more we go back in the past, as you said in your comment, with "hubiera + participle" that action is seen as previous to the one in the main clause. However, that will depend on the context sometimes. If you see these two examples:

Lo tomó como si se tratara de una broma. (Imperfect subjunctive)He took it as a joke. [as if it were a joke]
Lo tomó como si se hubiera tratado de una broma. (Pluperfect subjunctive)He took it as a joke. [as if it had been a joke]

In both, I can see the actions taking place at the same time, despite using the "as if it had been" in the second one, that doesn't mean we go back in time in this case.
It's a tricky nuance to see.
Saludos